‘Mid-Acts’ preachers boldly proclaim the apostle PAUL’s verses that teach there is ‘no difference’ between the Jew and the Gentile:
Rom 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
Rom 10:12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
However, ‘mid-Acts-ers’ fail to mention, much less acknowledge, or worse yet, even admit, that PETER, not Paul, was the FIRST person to preach ‘no difference’. That is ‘uncharted territory’ for them.
In Acts chapter 15, Peter told about his experience that happened in Acts 10, when he was in a trance, and a voice spoke to him, "What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common," (Acts 10:15).
We will read the context of Peter’s testimony before the counsel in Acts 15:
Acts 15:7-11 And when there had been much disputing, Peter rose up, and said unto them, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe.
8 And God, which knoweth the hearts, bare them witness, giving them the Holy Ghost, even as he did unto us;
9 And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith.
10 Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear? (i.e. keeping the law)
11 But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.
Notice Peter did not say, "We believe that ‘they’ (Gentiles) shall be saved, even as ‘we’ (Jews)." But rather, paraphrased, that ‘we’ (Jews) shall be saved, through grace, like ‘them’ (Gentiles).
‘Mid-Acts-ers’ are inconsistent when they explain away many scriptures by saying, "Paul was speaking to Jews there." Whatever they don’t want of Paul’s, they just sweep it away, by insisting he was talking specifically to Israel in certain verses. This while addressing his epistles to 'the church of God' or 'the saints'? They claim to be such proponents of PAUL’s ‘no difference’ statements, but when they run into Paul’s teaching about
--- believing Gentiles being ‘one body’ with believers of Israel (Rom 12:4-5; 1 Cor 10:17; Eph 2:16, 3:6, 4:4; Col 3:15),
---- or believing Gentiles being ‘graffed’ into Israel’s olive tree (Rom 11:17),
---- or believing Gentiles sharing in Israel’s inheritance (Acts 20:32, 26:18; Eph 3:6) ....
they set aside their ‘no difference’ tambourine and bang on the ‘Israel only’ drum.
There is no difference, so quit making one!
.
